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Romans 2 · a question people ask

"your circumcision has become uncircumcision" (2:25). Did circumcision count for nothing?

In the text

The same verse begins, "For circumcision indeed profits, if you are a doer of the law" (2:25). And the letter asks the question itself straight after the chapter: "Then what advantage does the Jew have? Or what is the profit of circumcision?" (3:1), and answers, "Much in every way! Because first of all, they were entrusted with the revelations of God." (3:2). These notes say no more than 2:25 and 3:1-2 say, and apply nothing in them to any practice, people or person today.

The verses

“For circumcision indeed profits, if you are a doer of the law, but if you are a transgressor of the law, your circumcision has become uncircumcision.”
Romans 2:25 · World English Bible
“Then what advantage does the Jew have? Or what is the profit of circumcision? Much in every way! Because first of all, they were entrusted with the revelations of God.”
Romans 3:1-2 · World English Bible

From Favor's study of Romans 2

Romans 2: No partiality with God

Romans 2 says "to the Jew first, and also to the Greek" twice in a row: once of anguish for the one who does evil (2:9), and once of glory for the one who does good (2:10). "For there is no partiality with God." (2:11). And on the day God judges "the secrets of men", he judges them "by Jesus Christ" (2:16).

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Last reviewed October 7, 2026. Scripture quotations are from the World English Bible, which is in the public domain. Every answer cites the verses it rests on. What we believe · All Bible questions