Psalm 119 · a question people ask
"It is good for me that I have been afflicted" (119:71). Does the psalm say suffering is good?
It says this of the psalmist's own affliction, and it gives its own reason: "It is good for me that I have been afflicted, that I may learn your statutes" (119:71). Four verses before, it says, "Before I was afflicted, I went astray; but now I observe your word" (119:67), and four verses after, "LORD, I know that your judgments are righteous, that in faithfulness you have afflicted me" (119:75). Afflicted in all three is one Hebrew verb, anah. The same psalm also prays to be delivered from affliction: "Consider my affliction, and deliver me, for I don’t forget your law" (119:153), and "I am afflicted very much. Revive me, LORD, according to your word" (119:107). And it says, "Unless your law had been my delight, I would have perished in my affliction" (119:92). So it calls its affliction good for it, and it asks to be freed from it. It doesn't say that all suffering is good, or why every trouble comes, and these notes don't either.
The verses
“Before I was afflicted, I went astray; but now I observe your word.”
“It is good for me that I have been afflicted, that I may learn your statutes.”
“LORD, I know that your judgments are righteous, that in faithfulness you have afflicted me.”
“Unless your law had been my delight, I would have perished in my affliction.”