Mark 1 · a question people ask
John preached "the baptism of repentance for forgiveness of sins" (1:4). Why was Jesus baptized?
Mark doesn't say. He tells that John's baptism was "of repentance for forgiveness of sins" (1:4), that people "were baptized by him in the Jordan river, confessing their sins" (1:5), and then that "Jesus came from Nazareth of Galilee, and was baptized by John in the Jordan" (1:9). Mark says nothing of Jesus confessing anything, and gives no reason. Matthew tells more. There John "would have hindered him, saying, “I need to be baptized by you, and you come to me?”" (Matthew 3:14), and Jesus answered, "Allow it now, for this is the fitting way for us to fulfill all righteousness" (Matthew 3:15). That is Matthew's account, in Matthew's words. Mark goes straight from the baptism to the heavens parting, the Spirit, and the voice (1:10-11), and these notes don't add a reason Mark doesn't give.
The verses
“John came baptizing in the wilderness and preaching the baptism of repentance for forgiveness of sins. All the country of Judea and all those of Jerusalem went out to him. They were baptized by him in the Jordan river, confessing their sins.”
“In those days, Jesus came from Nazareth of Galilee, and was baptized by John in the Jordan. Immediately coming up from the water, he saw the heavens parting and the Spirit descending on him like a dove. A voice came out of the sky, “You are my beloved Son, in whom I am well pleased.””
“Then Jesus came from Galilee to the Jordan to John, to be baptized by him. But John would have hindered him, saying, “I need to be baptized by you, and you come to me?” But Jesus, answering, said to him, “Allow it now, for this is the fitting way for us to fulfill all righteousness.” Then he allowed him.”