John 11 · a question people ask
Jesus had said, "I am going so that I may awake him out of sleep" (11:11). Why did he weep?
The Gospel doesn't say. It tells what Jesus saw and did, in order: "When Jesus therefore saw her weeping, and the Jews weeping who came with her, he groaned in the spirit and was troubled" (11:33); he asked, "Where have you laid him?" (11:34); and "Jesus wept" (11:35). Then it gives what some of those there said: "The Jews therefore said, “See how much affection he had for him!”" (11:36), and "Some of them said, “Couldn’t this man, who opened the eyes of him who was blind, have also kept this man from dying?”" (11:37). Those are their words. The Gospel adds no reason of its own, and these notes don't supply one.
The verses
“He said these things, and after that, he said to them, “Our friend Lazarus has fallen asleep, but I am going so that I may awake him out of sleep.””
“When Jesus therefore saw her weeping, and the Jews weeping who came with her, he groaned in the spirit and was troubled, and said, “Where have you laid him?” They told him, “Lord, come and see.” Jesus wept. The Jews therefore said, “See how much affection he had for him!” Some of them said, “Couldn’t this man, who opened the eyes of him who was blind, have also kept this man from dying?””