Eliphaz asks how anyone born of a woman could be righteous. Does other Scripture say the same?

Eliphaz asks, "What is man, that he should be clean? What is he who is born of a woman, that he should be righteous?" (15:14). Other Scripture asks the same kind of question. "Who can say, “I have made my heart pure. I am clean and without sin”?" (Proverbs 20:9), where I have made … pure is the verb of 15:14's clean (tap clean). A psalm says, "They have all gone aside. They have together become corrupt. There is no one who does good, no, not one" (Psalm 14:3), where become corrupt is the verb of 15:16's corrupt (tap corrupt). Paul writes, "There is no one righteous; no, not one" (Romans 3:10), and "for all have sinned, and fall short of the glory of God" (Romans 3:23). Job has said the like himself: "how can man be just with God?" (9:2), and "Who can bring a clean thing out of an unclean? Not one" (14:4); his "Man, who is born of a woman" (14:1) has, in Hebrew, the two words of Eliphaz's born of a woman. What Eliphaz does with his question comes next: "how much less one who is abominable and corrupt, a man who drinks iniquity like water!" (15:16), and then the wicked man's end (15:20-35). The book has told you that the LORD called Job "a blameless and an upright man" (1:8). What the book says of the friends' words is 42:7, and it doesn't say which words it means. These notes set the verses side by side and add no verdict of their own on Eliphaz.